The time has come to ask ourselves some harsh questions
1. Does the obvious voter manipulation by the media, by ignoring two parties during an election campaign while covering the large majority of the campaign of another party and reporting on every breath and bite of food by the remaining two, amount to illegal campaign donations.
Here is the logic. If all parties are not treated equally by the media then it stands to reason that the extra coverage given amounts to paid advertising. Now since to my knowledge no party has paid for the “news coverage” of their election campaign this must therefore be a donation by the Networks in question. Now to calculate the value of this donation all you need to do is find the value of any 30 second commercial in this particular timeslot and multiply it by the amount of time the “advertisement” runs. If you add it up at the end of the campaign i expect you will see the two main parties received “donations” way in excess of the 6000 dollar limit imposed by the elections act. This would apply equally to “news broadcasts” and “round tables or debates”
2. Does this acceptance of these “illegal campaign donations” constitute an over expenditure by the parties in question. As in addition to accepting the “illegal campaign donation” they also have “spent” that “donation” by accepting a different level of media coverage of themselves over other parties.
3. does this voter manipulation in some way actually contravene the elections act by fraudulently denying the public the opportunity to hear the views and platforms of all parties who are running candidates in the election